California: Infection Control

~ Exam ~

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This test has 25 questions.

All questions must be answered before the test can be graded.

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1. Destruction of most forms of microorganisms, but not bacterial and mycotic spores best describes:

  a. Disinfection

  b. Sterilization

  c. Antispetics

2. Three major components of infection control are:

  a. Aseptic technique

  b. Patient screening and evaluation

  c. Personal protection

  d. All of the above

3. Critical instruments include instruments, devices and other items that are not used to penetrate soft tissue or bone, but contact oral mucous membranes, non intact skin or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM).

  a. True

  b. False

4. OPIM means any of the following:

  a. Human body fluids such as saliva in dental procedures and any body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood, and all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids.

  b. Any unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human (living or dead).

  c. Cell, tissue, or organ cultures from humans or experimental animals.

  d. All of the above.

5. Effective infection control strategies prevent disease transmission by interrupting one or more links in the chain of infection.

  a. True

  b. False

6. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a laboratory test organism used to classify the strength of disinfectant chemicals or non lipid viruses and fungi.

  a. True

  b. False

7. Signs and symptoms of HIV infection include:

  a. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

  b. Fever lasting more than a month

  c. Involuntary weight loss

  d. All of the above

8. Personal protective equipment includes:

  a. Gowns

  b. Gloves

  c. Masks

  d. All of the above

9. Serum hepatitis includes type (s):

  a. C,E

  b. B

  c. D

  d. B and D

10. Alcohol can be used as a sterilizing agent.

  a. True

  b. False

11. Wearing gloves is the single most effective way to control infection.

  a. True

  b. False

12. Spilled blood should be cleaned with paper towels then disposed of after saturating with:

  a. Iodophor

  b. Bleach

  c. Alcohol

  d. Glutaraldyhyde

13. Examples of disinfectants are:

  a. Bleach

  b. Glutaraldehyde

  c. Phenol

  d. A and C

  e. All of the above.

14. After each patient, handpiece waterlines must be flushed for:

  a. 30 seconds

  b. 10 seconds

  c. 40 seconds

  d. 5 minutes

15. When patients close their lips around saliva ejector tips, it causes a suck back effect potentially exposing patients to pathogens.

  a. True

  b. False

16. To sterilize instruments in the autoclave, they must remain at 273°F for 20-30 minutes.

  a. True

  b. False

17. Spore testing services are available for steam, dry heat, unsaturated chemical vapor, and ethylene oxide gas sterilizers.

  a. True

  b. False

18. Spore testing must be performed:

  a. Daily

  b. Weekly

  c. Monthly

  d. Annually

19. Surfaces not protected by impervious barriers must be cleaned using an EPA registered disinfectant effective against HBV and HIV after each patient.

  a. True

  b. False

20. Glutaraldehyde sterilants are indicated for immersion use only and are not recommended for use as a surface disinfectant.

  a. True

  b. False

21. Sharps containers must be:

  a. Leak proof

  b. Puncture resistant

  c. A and B

22. Hepatitis B vaccinations need to be updated with a booster every:

  a. Ten years

  b. Five years

  c. Two years

  d. Not at all

23. Needles should be recapped:

  a. Using the scoop method

  b. Using the safety method

  c. By breaking the tip at the sharps container

24. Lister sterilized instruments and wounds using:

  a. Bleach

  b. Phenol

  c. Glurataldehyde

  d. Alcohol

25. If DHCP are exposed to HIV, it is recommended they receive treatment with anti-retroviral drugs within:

  a. 2 days for one month

  b. 1 week for one month

  c. 24 hours for 4 weeks

  d. 12 hours for 2 weeks