Adult Ventilation Management

~ Exam ~

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This test has 27 questions.

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1. Mechanical ventilation is:

  a. Chest compressions performed during cardiopulmonary arrest.

  b. Use of a heart-lung machine during coronary artery bypass surgery.

  c. Use of a machine to breathe for a patient who can’t breathe on his or her own.

  d. Use of an intra-aortic balloon pump for cardiogenic shock.

2. Which of the following is not an indication for mechanical ventilation?

  a. Myocardial infarction (MI)

  b. Respiratory failure

  c. Provide stability of the chest wall after trauma or surgery

  d. Brain injury requiring a barbituate-induced coma

3. Who is generally responsible for general ventilator maintenance?

  a. Nurse

  b. Nursing assistant

  c. Physician

  d. Respiratory therapist

4. Which artificial airway intubates both the trachea and esophagus?

  a. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

  b. Combitube

  c. Oropharyngeal airway

  d. Tracheostomy tube

5. Which artificial airway is used for long-term airway management?

  a. Tracheostomy tube

  b. Nasopharyngeal airway

  c. Endotracheal tube

  d. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

6. Which lab value must the nurse know for a patient who may receive succinylcholine?

  a. Sodium

  b. PaCO2

  c. Calcium

  d. Potassium

7. Which of the following is not a method of confirming correct positioning of an endotracheal tube?

  a. End tidal CO2 detector

  b. Asking patient to speak

  c. Breath sounds

  d. Chest x-ray

8. Identify one way to assist a patient with an artificial airway to communicate:

  a. Tell family to take the patient’s glasses home

  b. Encourage patient to talk

  c. Use a communication board

  d. Teach the patient sign language

9. What is tidal volume?

  a. The number of breaths per minute

  b. The amount of oxygen delivered with each breath

  c. The amount of pressure used to deliver a breath

  d. The volume of gas delivered in a single breath

10. Which of the following is a risk of long-term 100% oxygen?

  a. Oxygen toxicity

  b. Cerebral edema

  c. Cyanosis

  d. Hypercapnia

11. How does Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) differ from Assist Control (A/C) in relation to the patient’s spontaneous breaths?

  a. A/C allows the patient to control the tidal volume of spontaneous breaths

  b. SIMV allows the patient to control the tidal volume of spontaneous breaths

  c. A/C does not allow spontaneous breaths

  d. SIMV delivers the same tidal volume for both spontaneous and ventilator-initiated breaths.

12. Which of the following will cause a high pressure alarm?

  a. Secretions

  b. Disconnected ventilator tubing

  c. Hypoxia

  d. A cuff leak

13. Which of the following could you do for a high respiratory rate alarm?

  a. Turn off the Versed infusion

  b. Increase the respiratory rate alarm parameters

  c. Test Train-of-Four

  d. Assess the patient for pain and/or anxiety

14. List one indication for noninvasive mechanical ventilation:

  a. Difficulty weaning from the ventilator

  b. Sleep apnea

  c. Upper airway tumor

  d. Copious secretions

15. How often should the bite block be cleaned for a patient with an endotracheal tube?

  a. Every 8 hours

  b. Every 2 hours

  c. Every 24 hours

  d. Every 4 hours

16. Which of the following is not a goal of tracheostomy care?

  a. Prevent infection

  b. Maintain airway patency

  c. Ensure that the patient can swallow

  d. Prevent skin breakdown

17. Identify one way to decrease the complications associated with sterile suctioning:

  a. Use only 50% oxygen before and after suctioning

  b. Suction routinely every hour

  c. Do not used a closed suction system

  d. Do not routinely instill saline prior to suctioning

18. Identify one way to provide controlled ventilation for a patient who is consistently agitated?

  a. Restrain the patient

  b. Administer continuous sedation and neuromuscular blockade

  c. Tell the patient to be calm

  d. Have a nursing assistant sit with the patient throughout the shift

19. Which of the following indicates 90% blockade on the Train-of-Four method of testing level of neuromuscular blockade?

  a. One twitch

  b. Two twitches

  c. Three twitches

  d. Four twitches

20. If your patient has respiratory acidosis, which of the following will you see on the ABG?

  a. Elevated HCO3

  b. Decreased PO2

  c. Increased PCO2

  d. Decreased HCO3

21. If your patient accidentally extubated himself and is now having respiratory distress, what is the first thing you should do?

  a. Try to reinsert the endotracheal tube

  b. Manually ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag

  c. Document the pulse oximetry

  d. Obtain an ABG

22. Define ventilator weaning:

  a. Turning off the ventilator and letting the patient breathe spontaneously

  b. Changing to a noninvasive form of ventilation

  c. Increasing the tidal volume delivered by the ventilator

  d. Decreasing the number of ventilator breaths while allowing an increased number of spontaneous breaths

23. When using T-piece trials to wean, which of the following is true?

  a. The patient alternates time on the ventilator with time breathing spontaneously

  b. The number of ventilator breaths is gradually decreased

  c. The patient has the benefit of the ventilator alarms while on the T-piece

  d. The T-piece gives a postive pressure “boost” to decrease the work of breathing

24. What should a patient’s minimum spontaneous tidal volume be in order to be successfully weaned from the ventilator?

  a. 10 ml/kg

  b. 20 ml/kg

  c. 5ml/kg

  d. 7-10 ml/kg

25. Which of the following is not a component of weaning criteria?

  a. Negative inspiratory force

  b. I:E ratio

  c. Minute volume

  d. Vital capacity

26. What kind of oxygen administration system should be used for a patient immediately after extubation?

  a. Nasal cannula

  b. Venturi mask

  c. Room air

  d. Humidified mask

27. Which of the following should be done to assess respiratory status after extubation?

  a. ABG

  b. Electrolyte panel

  c. Monitor end tidal CO2

  d. Bronchoscopy