Pharmacology Update

~ Exam ~

Nurses Research Publication now provides real-time grading and a real-time certificate for this online course.  To take the test, click on the button corresponding to the correct answer for each question.  When you're done, click on the "Grade Test" button.

You will be asked to login (if you are a returning customer) or register (if you are a new customer) and pay $59.00 for the processing of your test and certificate. You will be given your test results instantly and you will be able to print out your certificate immediately from your browser.

You must correctly answer 70 of 100 questions. If needed, you may retake the exam. Please complete the evaluation form that will appear on your screen after passing the exam.

Your test will be graded online right away, and upon passing you will be able to immediately print out your certificate.  We would appreciate it if you could take a few minutes to complete the evaluation form that will appear on your screen after passing the exam.

Occasionally computers fail. Thus you may wish to print the exam, mark the answers on the printed copy, then transfer those answers to the computer when you're ready to submit the exam for scoring. Once the exam is completed successfully, you will no longer be able to access this course (unless you pay for the course again).

This test has 100 questions.

All questions must be answered before the test can be graded.

Already taken the test? Click here to login and retrieve your answers.
Chapter I Introduction Pages 7-20
1. You should always _____ when you are giving meds: don't do it out of habit.
  a. re-check
  b. think
  c. wash hands
  d. call the pharmacy
2. By preventing errors, the nurse will have the opportunity to perform patient
  a. teaching
  b. supervision
  c. billing
  d. procedures
3. GI problems and circulatory problems can interfere with the ________ of the drug.
  a. absorption
  b. penetration

  c. cost
  d. distribution
  e. excretion
4. The fate of the drug refers to the manner in which the drug is:
  a. excreted
  b. absorbed
  c. distributed
  d. used by the body
5. "Most Common" gastrointestinal side effects of most drugs include:
  a. diarrhea & dystonia
  b. nausea & drowsiness
  c. diarrhea & dysphagia
  d. nausea & rashes
  e. diarrhea & constipation
6. An adverse reaction to a drug is an undesirable and usually ______response.
  a. expected
  b. unanticipated
  c. mild
  d. allergic
  e. fatal
7. _________ is one category of drugs likely to cause allergic reactions.
  a. diuretics
  b. antibiotics
  c. insulin
  d. digoxin
  e. antiemetics
8. Vaccines may cause allergic reactions in those who have ________ sensitivity.
  a. antibiotics
  b. seafood
  c. egg
  d. meat
  e. pork
9. _______ is an acute medical emergency requiring prompt attention.
  a. CPR
  b. drug interaction
  c. anaphylaxis
  d. immunologic reaction
10. Narcotics may cause nonimmunologic reactions, usually those of _______.
  a. hypertension
  b. anaphylaxis
  c. urticaria
  d. bronchospasm
Chapter II Pharmacology Update (antibiotics) Pages 21-34
11. Zyvox is the first antibiotics in a new class of antibiotics called:
  a. penicillins
  b. flouroqinolones
  c. antifungals
  d. oxazolidinones
12. Lorabid is a broad-spectrum oral antibiotic used to treat ______ infections.
  a. bone
  b. gastrointestinal
  c. joint
  d. skin
  e. brain
13. Cefepime is contraindicated in patients who have had immediate hypersensitivity reactions to:
  a. erythromycin
  b. penicillin
  c. Zeneca
  d. quinolones
14. Meropenem has been initially approved for ______ infections.
  a. respiratory
  b. intra-abdominal
  c. fungal
  d. gnorrhea
15. Levaquin is the first once-a-day antibiotic proven effective against:
  a. acute maxillary sinusitis
  b. chronic meningitis
  c. N. gonorrhea
16. There is up to 98% decreased absorption of Levaquin when given with:
  a. iron prepartions
  b. warfarin
  c. theophylline
  d. penicillin
17. Sparfloxacin (Zagam) is contraindicatecd in patients with:
  a. CHF
  b. tachycardia
  c. fungal infections
  d. Alzheimer's Disease
18. Grepafloxacin should be discontinued if the patient experiences rupture of a:
  a. vein
  b. artery
  c. joint
  d. ligament
  e. tendon
19. Trovan is the first agent ever approved for oral prophylactic use in
  a. hepatitis
  b. endocarditis
  c. lumbar punctures
  d. surgery
20. ____________ is used against life-threatening VREF bacteremia.
  a. Synercid
  b. Probenecid
  c. Raxar
  d. Trovan
  e. none of these
Chapter II Pharmacology Update (Cardiovascular) Pages 35-41
21. Verapamil is used for slowing arryhythmias such as
  a. V fibrillation
  b. artrial fibrillation
  c. heart block
22. Adenosine ______ works by slowing the initiation of the SA node
  a. conduction
  b. reentry
  c. impulses
  d. innervation
  e. rhythm
23. When administering adenosine, you must observe the cardiac monitor for:
  a. heart block
  b. tachycardia
  c. flutter
  d. fibrillation
  e. asystole
24. MgSo4 may be given prophylactically for the acute _____ patient.
  a. CHF
  b. fibrillation
  c. asystole
  d. MI
  e. bradycardia
25. Inocor is used for short-term management of
  a. CHF
  b. fibrillation
  c. asystole
  d. MI
  e. bradycardia
26. Cilostazol relieves symptoms of intermittent claudication by inhibiting:
  a. blood coagulation
  b. platelet aggregation
  c. vasospasm
27. Zeneca is the first of a new class of agents for treating
  a. heart block
  b. heartburn
  c. asthma
  d. cancer
  e. CHF
28. Zanamivir reduced the duration of major __________ symptoms by one to 2-1/2 days.
  a. asthma
  b. cold
  c. arthritis
  d. diarrhea
  e. influenza
Chapter II Pharmacology Update (Musculoskeletal) Pages 45-48
29. Zanaflex is the first new oral drug for muscle
  a. weakness
  b. rigidity
  c. injury
  d. spasticity
  e. atrophy
30. Celecoxib is indicated for relief of syptoms of
  a. Osteoarthritis
  b. cancer
  c. muscle spasm
  d. hepatitis
Chapter II Pharmacoloav Update (Oncoloav) Pages 49-55
31. The PRINCIPLE of chemotherapy is to administer the __________ tolerable drug dose.
  a. minimum
  b. maximum
  c. extreme
  d. best
  e. generally
32. These drugs have a greater ability to attack cells in the resting phase:
  a. antitumor antibiotics
  b. alkylating agents
  c. nitrosoureas
33. M.O.P.P. stands for ______ Oncovin, Procarbazine, and Prednisone.
  a. Maran
  b. Marinol
  c. Mabilone
  d. Marplan
  e. Nitrogen mustard
34. Docetaxel is indicated for patients with metastatic _________ cancer.
  a. bladder
  b. bone
  c. brain
  d. breast
  e. liver
35. Ontak is the first drug specifically indicated to treat recurrent
  a. CTCL
  b. CMV
  c. breast cancer
  d. Hodgkin's Disease
Chapter II PHARMACOLOGY Update (Neurological) Pages 56-65
36. Prozac interacts with many other drugs; carbamazepine, insulin, and
  a. antacids
  b. dilantin
  c. valium
  d. penicillin
  e. erythromycin
37. Methemoglobinemia has occured when an OTC vaginal cream was used to treat:
  a. yeast infections
  b. diaper rash
  c. sore throat
38. Optimal conscious sedation/anagesia is achieved when the patient:
  a. is unresponsive
  b. recalls entire procedure
  c. retains gag reflex
39. __________ is recommended as a replacement for diazepam for conscious sedation.
  a. flourazepam
  b. morphine
  c. chloral hydrate
  d. Midazolam
40. Managing _________ adequately during the first procedure, usually helps reduce the anxiety associated with future procedures.
  a. pain
  b. sedation
  c. anxiety
  d. nausea
  e. the family
41. The goal (of Narcan) is to reverse the _______ depressant effect of opioids.
  a. pain
  b. neurological
  c. slight
  d. severe
  e. respiratory
42. A ______ dose of nalmefene is usually enough to reverse most opioids.
  a. large
  b. multiple
  c. small
  d. single
  e. double
43. The person evaluating the response of the patient to the drugs, must ____ the person performing the procedure.
  a. always be
  b. supervise
  c. not be
  d. instruct
  e. none of these
44. The duration of the post-procedure recovery period may vary depending on the type and _______ of sedative/analgesia administered.
  a. administration
  b. amount
  c. function
  d. route
  e. none of these
Chapter II Pharmacoloav Update (Gastrointestinal) Pages 65-70
45. Prilosec is an anti-ulcer drug that is becoming more useful in treating severe:
  a. esophagitis
  b. duodenal ulcer
  c. stomach ulcer
  d. stomatitis
46. Lispro may improve postprandial gylcemic control by mimicking the body's natural rapid insulin output after
  a. an injection
  b. sleeping
  c. bedtime
  d. fasting
  e. a meal
47. Rosiglitazone increases sensitivity to insulin and decreases _______ glucose output.
  a. stomach
  b. hepatic
  c. intestinal
  d. pancreatic
  e. pharyngeal
48. Adverse reactions to Miglitol include: abdominal pain, diarrhea, and ______
  a. uticaria
  b. constipation
  c. flatulence
  d. hyperglycemia
49. Orlistat works by blocking _________ in the GI tract.
  a. fats
  b. proteins
  c. carbohydrates
  d. digestion
  e. water
50. Aciphex is indicated for long-term treatment of ________ disease.
  a. diarrhea
  b. Zollinger-Ellison
  c. Addison's
  d. gastric acid
Chapter II Pharmacology Update (Psvchotropics) Pastes 72-96
51. Remeron is particularly useful in reducing anxiety and _______ problems which often accompany depression.
  a. sexual
  b. sleep
  c. visual
  d. mania
  e. drowsiness
52. Wellbutrin is used to treat depression and recently has been found to relieve symptoms of
  a. gastritis
  b. tremors
  c. ADHD
  d. Anxiety
  e. constipation
53. MAOI's are usually contraindicated in asthma, CHF, and
  a. diabetes
  b. gastric ulcers
  c. alcholism
  d. Addison's disease
54. The most common side effects of Depakote are drwsiness and
  a. vomiting
  b. headache
  c. diarrhea
  d. anxiety
  e. nausea
55. Adderall is a drug containing mixed salts of a single-entity _____ product.
  a. magnesium
  b. amphetamine
  c. TCA
  d. MAO1
  e. benzodiazepine
56. At least _______ should elapse betwen discontinuing MAO1 therapy and initiating the use of tricyclics.
  a. ten days
  b. 21 days
  c. one week
  d. one month
  e. 14 days
57. BuSpar is often prescribed to people with _______ axiety disorder.
  a. pre-op
  b. alcohol withdrawal
  c. agitation
  d. generalized
58. Tranxene is used as an anti-anxiety drug and for ________.
  a. alcohol withdrawal
  b. pre-op anxiety
  c. generalized anxiety
59. Tybatram is used for an anti-anxiety drug for tension and
  a. pre-op anxiety
  b. alcohol withdrawal
  c. agitation
  d. generalized anxiety
60. Patients receiving antipsychotic drugs whould have an evaluation of:
  a. thyroid tests
  b. liver function tests
  c. brain scan
  d. liver scan
61. Serentil has generally _______ side effects, with milder hypotensive effects than Thorazine.
  a. more severe
  b. CNS
  c. sedating
  d. fewer
  e. more
62. Compazine is more often used as an antiemetic;can be used for _____.
  a. diarrhea
  b. constipation
  c. sedation
  d. sleep
  e. antacid
63. Pimozide works by blocking _______ receptors and takes about two weeks to work.
  a. ACTH
  b. neural
  c. dopamine
  d. brain
  e. serotonin
64. Risperdal is indicated for the management of _______ disorders.
  a. psychotic
  b. anxiety
  c. neurotic
  d. ADHD
  e. dissociative
65. Too much dopamine causes nerve impulses in the brain stem to be transmitted ________ than normal.
  a. faster
  b. slower
66. Extrapyramidal side effects, or adverse neurological effects may occur during the _____ phase of drug therapy.
  a. involuntary
  b. early
  c. middle
  d. late
  e. voluntary
67. This side effect (Parkinsonism) involves motor retardation or
  a. nausea
  b. akinesia
  c. dry mouth
  d. vomiting
  e. blurred vision
68. Some symptoms of EPS include: fatigue, drowsiness, drooling, and
  a. dry mouth
  b. blurred vision
  c. mania
  d. weakness
  e. tremors
69. Inderal, used to treat hypertension, is also used to treat migraines and:
  a. psychosis
  b. diabetes
  c. bradycardia
  d. Parkinson's symptoms
Chapter III Pharmacology Update (Drug Abuse/Legal Issues) Pages 97-99
70. Trexan is administered to the person after total ______ from the narcotic.
  a. intoxication
  b. rehabilitation
  c. addiction
  d. detoxification
71. The usual side effects of Timolol Eye Drops are: dyspepsia, hypotension,and:
  a. fatigue
  b. hypertension
  c. vomiting
  d. diarrhea
Chapter III Pharmacology Update (Oral Contraceptives) Pages 100-103
72. The "mini-pill" contains only progestin, it must be taken
  a. for 21 days
  b. every day
  c. after meals
  d. twice daily
73. Most combination contraceptives will begin on the first _______ after menses.
  a. Sunday
  b. Monday
  c. day
  d. evening
  e. cycle
74. "Plan B11 is the first dedicated _______ pill developed in the U.S. to prevent pregnancy after unprotected intercourse.
  a. estrogen-only
  b. progestin-only
  c. mini
  d. abortion
Chapter III Pharmacology Update (Hepatitis Update) Pages 104
75. The immunization (Heptavax-B) apparently has a higher rate of _____ if given in the deltoid for some unknown reason.
  a. potency
  b. nausea
  c. side effects
  d. rashes
  e. effectiveness
Chapter III Pharmacology Update (HIV/AIDS) Pages 105-110
76. Usually ____ is the first drug used to treat the HIV viral infection.
  a. Retrovir
  b. Saquinavir
  c. AZT
  d. ddI
  e. ddC
77. Coadministration of ritonavir and non-sedating _____ may produce life-threatening situations.
  a. anti-virals
  b. cough syrups
  c. OTC drugs
  d. antihistamines
78. The patient must take ______ capsules of amprenavir per dose.
  a. two
  b. four
  c. six
  d. eight
  e. ten
79. Amprenavir may be taken with or without food, but avoid taking it with a ____ meal.
  a. high protein
  b. low carbohydrate
  c. low-fat
  d. high-fat
Chapter III Pharmacology Update (Elderly Drug Therapy) Pages 111-127
80. The main factors that affect drug therapy in the elderly are _____ gastric emptying time, and rise in gastric juices.
  a. decreased
  b. increase
81. In aging, there is diminished renal blood flow, and ________.
  a. reabsorption
  b. increased filtration
  c. increased secretion
82. A condtion under which the need for calcium rises: _____ diet.
  a. low sugar
  b. low protein
  c. low phosphate
  d. high sodium
83. It's easy to miss adverse drug reactions, because many reactions such as confusion, _______, or constipation, are common (in the elderly).
  a. falling
  b. alcoholism
  c. dizziness
  d. flatulence
84. The 300 mg dose (of phenytoin) may produce such effects as sleeplessness, confusion, and nystagmus in a geriatric patient with _______.
  a. diabetes
  b. hypoalbuminemia
  c. hyperbilirubinemia
  d. none of these
85. With age, a drug or active metabolites may remain in the body longer: repeated dosing may result in significant __________ of the drug.
  a. elimination
  b. accumulation
  c. detoxification
  d. deactivation
86. In older patients, these drugs (valium, etc.) will remain in the body longer and can cause daytime sedation or ______ in the morning.
  a. excitement
  b. energy
  c. lethargy
  d. hunger
  e. anger
87. The following drugs require dosage adjustment for patients with diminished renal function: allopurinol (Zyloprim) and:
  a. aspirin
  b. Lanoxin
  c. valium
  d. tylenol
88. Demerol is another drug that poses risks to older patients with renal impairment: toxicity is caused by an active metabolite called
  a. meperidine
  b. hydromorphone
  c. neurotoxin
  d. normeperidine
89. Older adults appear to be more sensitive to ________ adverse drug reactions.
  a. anticholinergic
  b. sympathomimetic
  c. serotonin
  d. hepatic
90. A common problem your history may uncover is the use of ______ medications
  a. anagesic
  b. illegal
  c. multiple
  d. outdated
  e. OTC
91. Often what determines the effect of a drug is the ratio between total body ______ and fat.
  a. water
  b. blood volume
  c. composition
  d. enzymes
92. As many as ____ of elderly patients do not administer their medications as prescribed.
  a. 5%
  b. 15%
  c. 20%
  d. 30%
  e. 40%
93. The primary reasons for nonadherence to drug treatment in the older patient are poor communication with _________ and declining cognitive function.
  a. their family
  b. their pharmacist
  c. their doctor
  d. health professionals
Appendix A Pharmacology Update Pages 128
94. The drug formerly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease will no longer be marketed in the U.S.
  a. Rezulin
  b. Pin-X
  c. Propulsid
  d. Doxicin
  e. Acetylate
95. Because the eggs are easily transmitted, even through the _____, pinworms can occur in the cleanest of households.
  a. air
  b. bed clothes
  c. hair
  d. hands
  e. fingernails
Appendix B Pharmacology Update Pages 129-132
96. Factors contributing to drug polymorphism among various ethnic groups can be loosely categorized as environmentl, cultural, and ________.
  a. biological
  b. genetic
  c. social
  d. historical
97. Generally, drugs that are titrated for individual tolerance or efficacy simutaneously adjust for _______.
  a. cultures
  b. race
  c. social factors
  d. effectiveness
98. If only one drug is used, blacks respond better to diuretics than to beta blockers and __________.
  a. antidepressants
  b. benzodiazepines
  c. ACE inhibitors
  d. insulin
Appendix C Pharmacology Update Pages 133
99. ________ has recently been shown to reduce the effectiveness of certainHIV anti-viral drugs.
  a. ephedra
  b. ginseng
  c. insulin
  d. St. John's Wort
100. This herb, ______ should not be used by persons with diabetes.
  a. ginseng
  b. ephedra
  c. St John's Wort
  d. insulin
  e. soy