Physical Assessment

~ Exam ~

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This test has 50 questions.

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1. Which should be obtained before beginning assessment of the lungs and thorax?
  a. Lung sounds
  b. Tidal volume
  c. Heart sounds
  d. Patient’s insurance

  e. Patient history

2. Tidal volume is described as the volume of air in and out of the lungs with:
  a. Forced inspiration
  b. Normal inspiration
  c. Forced expiration

  d. Forced inspiration and expiration
3. In the normal adult, the total lung capacity is the estimated to be approximately

  a. 1,300 cc
  b. 2,200 cc

  c. 2,500 cc
  d. 3,900 cc

  e. 5,800 cc

4. In examining the thorax, the gross assessment of visual inspection would include the notation of:
  a. Gross deformities
  b. Rate and lung sounds
  c. Lung sounds

  d. Speech pattern
  e. Heart sounds

5. The normal adult respiratory rate is about _____________ breaths per minute
  a. 5-8
  b. 7-9

  c. 10-12

  d. 12-18

  e. 16-24

6. During palpation of the thorax, you should assess the intercostal spaces for
  a. Tenderness and retractions

  b. Swelling and color changes
  c. Bulging or retractions
  d. Scars of swelling

7. The lung sound that is considered “normal” lung sounds when purcussing is
  a. Rales

  b. Rhonchi

  c. Flat sound
  d. Dull sound
  e. Resonant sound

8. The intensity of auscultated lung sounds is also called:
  a. Loudness
  b. Rales
  c. Resonant sound
  d. Quality

  e. Amplitude

9. Vesicular breath sounds are of low pitch and are heard over:
  a. Most of normal lung tissue
  b. Consolidated lung tissue

  c. The trachea
10. This type of breath sound is caused by uneven flow of air in the airway:
  a. Rales
  b. Turbulence
  c. Resonant Sound
  d. Tracheal Breath Sounds

  e. Rhochi
11. When this disorder is present, there is decreased expansion on affected side, and the trachea is shifted away from the affected side
  a. Pneumothorax

  b. Pleural effusion
  c. Homothorax
  d. Stelectasis

  e. Consolidation
12. This breath sound is caused by air traveling through a narrowed passage or by mucus in the passages:
  a. Rales
  b. Cognition
  c. Reasoning
  d. Judgment

  e. Cooperation

13. Assessing mental status includes intellectual functioning, this refers to:
  a. Memory
  b. Cognition
  c. Reasoning

  d. Judgment
  e. Cooperation

14. Abstract reasoning disorder means the person cannot think in the abstract. They have the disorder of:
  a. Concrete thinking

  b. Disorientation

  c. Concrete reasoning
  d. Poor short term memory

15. In neurosis, the person is in touch with reality, however, the condition may:
  a. Become worse

  b. Become overtly neurotic
  c. Lead to a memory disorder

  d. Become abstract

16. A delusion is defined as:
  a. False hallucination

  b. Seeing something that is not there
  c. False belief
  d. Hearing something that is not there

17. The difference between a hallucination and an illusion is that with illusions there is always a ______ present.
  a. Vision

  b. Stimulus
  c. Sensation
  d. Doctor

  e. Neurosis
18. The best way to chart that the patient is in a “good mood” is: the patient is ______
  a. In good spirits
  b. Is cooperative
  c. In a good mood
  d. Is ambivalent
19. A symptom of chronic OBS would be:
  a. Irritable

  b. Anxious
  c. Fearful

  d. Constant hallucinations

20. The nervous system that is composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems is the:
  a. Peripheral system

  b. Autonomic system
  c. Central nervous system

  d. Cranial nervous system

21. 21. The nervous system that is responsible for the special senses is the _____ nervous system.
  a. Cranial
  b. Autonomic
  c. Peripheral
  d. Central

  e. Cerebral

22. This test is an imaging test and provides for a cross-sectional view of the skull, showing various densities:
  a. EEG
  b. EMG
  c. CAT study
  d. Myelogram
  e. Angiogram

23. This test outlines the subarachnoid space and shows the presence of tumors:
  a. EEG
  b. EMG
  c. CAT study
  d. Myelogram
  e. Angiogram

24. This test requires needle electrodes to be placed into skeletal muscles in order to study electrical impulses:
  a. EEG
  b. EMG
  c. CAT study
  d. Myelogram

  e. Angiogram

25. Early symptoms of a brain tumor usually include:
  a. Headache, mania

  b. Nausea, vomiting

  c. Confusion, lethargy
  d. Headache, myalgia
26. A disease characterized by muscle weakness and parasthesias of the extremities is called:
  a. Delusions
  b. Psychosis
  c. Stroke

  d. Diabetic neuropathy
  e. Polyradiculitis

27. Pupil assessment is very important in the neuro exam. Always check pupils for their reactivity to:
  a. Darkness
  b. Focusing for distance
  c. Light
  d. Medications
28. Symptoms of diabetic neuropathy include: feeling of numbness, tingling, and coldness in the extremities, this set of symptoms is called:
  a. Paralysis
  b. Hypotension
  c. Hyper-reflexia
  d. Paresthesia
  e. TIA
29. Part of the mental status assessment includes: mood, affect, state of awareness, dress and grooming and:
  a. Posture
  b. Facial nerves
  c. Pupils
  d. Special senses
  e. Neck and shoulder strength

30. Assessment of motor system includes: general posture and muscle coordination, muscles, coordination, and:
  a. Gait
  b. Paralysis
  c. Hypotension
  d. Cranial nerves

31. Examination of cerebral function include: behavior, level of consciousness, intellectual functioning and:
  a. Thought content
  b. Blood pressure
  c. Gait
  d. Pupils
  e. Affect
32. Pulmonary blood vessels carry approx. what percentage of blood is in the body?
  a. 10%
  b. 12%
  c. 18%
  d. 25%

  e. 50%

33. Arcus Senilis is a disorder of old age. When seen in younger patients it might be a precursor to:
  a. Hypertension
  b. Myocardial infraction (MI)
  c. Stroke (CVA)
  d. Coronary artery disease
34. A patient’s edema is measured as being 1 inch in depth. The edema is described as:
  a. +1 pitting edema

  b. +2 pitting edema
  c. +3 pitting edema

  d. +4 pitting edema

35. The volume of a patient’s radial pulse diminishes upon inspirations, this is

  a. Pulses altering
  b. Bounding pulse
  c. Pulses obliterans
  d. Pulses paradoxus
36. Your patient has a regular radial pulse. However, the volume diminishes from beat to beat, this is called
  a. Pulsus alterans
  b. Bounding pulse

  c. Pulsus obliterans

  d. Pulsus paradoxus
37. The normal jugular, venous pulse varies upon inspiration and expiration. Upon inspiration, the normal jugular venous pulse:
  a. Rises

  b. Descends
  c. Weakness

  d. Pulsates
38. If the jugular vein pulsation is more than 3 cm above the sterna notch, it could possibly indicate:

  a. Lowered CVF
  b. Hypotension
  c. Increased CVF
  d. Hypertension
  e. Congestive heart failure
39. 39. The “c wave” in the jugular vein, is a reflection of onset of right ventricular contraction. It begins at the end of:
  a. S1
  b. S2
  c. S3
  d. S4

40. The heart sounds, S1, originates from the closing of the mitral valve and the:
  a. Aortic valve
  b. Pulmonic lunar valve
  c. Pulmonic valve
  d. Tricuspid valve
41. Gallops are low-pitched sounds usually heard best with which part of the stethoscope?
  a. Diaphragm
  b. Bell
  c. Cannot be heard with a stethoscope
42. A person with hypertension will have a louder sound with which heart sound?
  a. S1
  b. S2
  c. S3
  d. S4
43. Pulmonic stenosis causes a delayed emptying of the right side of the heart and a splitting of which sound?
  a. S1
  b. S2
  c. S3
  d. S4
44. In mitral stenosis there may be a louder than normal heart sound. Which heart sound is often louder when mitral stenosis is present?
  a. S1
  b. S2
  c. S3
  d. S4
45. Step I of the cardiovascular assessment is very important; it includes:
  a. Putting the patient at ease
  b. Assessing the vital sounds
  c. Counting the heart rate
46. In the classification of heart murmurs, the loudest murmur is in the group below is:
  a. Grade I
  b. Grade II
  c. Grade III
  d. Grade IV
  e. Grade V

47. A murmur that begins softly and becomes louder is referred to as:
  a. Crescendo
  b. Decrescendo

  c. Holosystolic
  d. Pansystolic

48. When listening to heart sounds, you describe where the sound is in the cardiac cycle. This is called:
  a. Grading
  b. Ausculating
  c. Palpating
  d. Timing

  e. Intensity
49. A heart sound can sometimes sound like two sounds at once. This dividing of a heart sound is called:
  a. Crescendo
  b. Timing
  c. Splitting
  d. Grading

  e. Intensity
50. The time interval between S1 and S2 corresponds to the ___ phase of the cardiac cycle.
  a. Pansystolic
  b. Systolic
  c. Diastolic
  d. Pandiastolic

  e. Resting