Cardiovascular Assessment

~ Exam ~

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This test has 46 questions.

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1. Prior to beginning the cardiovascular assessment, the nurse should obtain the:
  a. Patient history

  b. Lab test results
  c. Closing of both the aortic and pulmonic valves

  d. Closing of both the mitral and tricuspid valves
2. S1, the first heart sound, is made up of:
  a. Closing of the pulmonic valves
  b. Closing of the tricuspid valves

  c. Closing of both the aortic and pulmonic valves

  d. Closing of both the mitral and tricuspid valves

3. The timing of a heart murmur may be described as:
  a. Early
  b. Late
  c. Middle
  d. All of these

4. When interviewing the patient, you should ask questions using lay terminology and

  a. You should not use medical terms.
  b. You should use precise medical terms

5. The first step to perform, when determining the EKG rhythm is:
  a. Examine the individual components of the EEG

  b. Take action to correct any arrhythmia
  c. Assessment
  d. Name the arrhythmia

6. All but one are cardiovascular signs of shock, that one not a classical symptom is:
  a. Tachycardia
  b. Skin cool and moist
  c. Hypotension
  d. Cyanosis
  e. Blanching poor

7. The first step in the inspection process is:
  a. Have patient sit upright
  b. Allow for privacy
  c. Inspect from the back of patient
8. The significance of the 5th intercostals space and the midclavicular line is:
  a. Aortic area
  b. Pulmonic area
  c. Ventricular area
  d. Apical area
  e. Epigastric
9. A pressoreceptor is located in which area(s) of the body?
  a. Aortic arch

  b. Abdominal aorta
  c. Vena cava

  d. Coronary artery

  e. All of these

10. A light gray ring surrounding the iris and is common in older patients, is called:
  a. Xantheiasma
  b. Cataract
  c. Hordeolum

  d. Cyanosis

  e. Arcus senilis

11. An example of a cardiotonic drug is:
  a. Lidocaine
  b. Apresoline
  c. Amyl nitrite
  d. Inderal

  e. Digoxin

12. A drug used to treat sinus Bradycardia is:
  a. Lidocaine

  b. Bretylium
  c. Atropine
  d. Digoxin

  e. None of these

13. Edema described as +4 is edema having more than a one inch indentation
  a. True

  b. False

14. Mitral stenosis usually causes a very loud S2 sound

  a. True
  b. False

15. Physiological splitting of S2can be caused by normal respiratory patterns
  a. True
  b. False

16. Each large block of EEG paper represents two seconds of time
  a. True

  b. False

17. The QRS complex refers to the electrical conduction going through the atria

  a. True

  b. False

18. A possible complication of a myocardial infarction is shock
  a. True

  b. False
19. CVF will tend to cause slow arrhythmias such as sinus Bradycardia, in patients
  a. True

  b. False

20. Very late stage shock will cause oliguria and concentrated urine
  a. True

  b. False

21. In secondary hypertension, the cause of high blood pressure is not known.
  a. True

  b. False

22. Pulsus paradoxus might be indicative of constrictive pericardial disease.
  a. True
  b. False

23. The first step to examination of the heart is auscultation
  a. True
  b. False

24. A bounding pulse is described as having very sharp upstroke and downstroke wave
  a. True
  b. False
25. Isuprel combats shock, but also increases the demand for oxygen by the heart.
  a. True
  b. False

26. Levophed is a patient vasoconstrictor used for combating shock.
  a. True
  b. False
27. S3 heart sound is not normally heard, but can be normal in most situations.
  a. True
  b. False

28. Murmurs can be described by indicating where they fall in cardiac cycle.
  a. True

  b. False
29. A sign that CVF might be elevated is any distention of the jugular vein.

  a. True
  b. False

30. The a wave is the predominant wave in neck, it reflects ventricular pressure.
  a. True
  b. False

31. In beginning to auscultate the heart, have the patient lie on their back at about
  a. 30 degree angle
  b. 45 degree angle
  c. 60 degree angle
  d. 90 degree angle
32. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is best for hearing
  a. High pitched sounds

  b. Low pitched sounds

33. S3 and S4 gallops are usually low pitched sounds, and heard best with the

  a. Diaphragm of the stethoscope

  b. Bell of the stethoscope

34. Holodiastolic murmurs describes murmurs heard:
  a. S1 to S3
  b. S3 to S4

  c. S1 to S2
  d. S1 to S4

  e. S2 to S1

35. Mitral stenosis will usually cause the following heart sound:
  a. Loud S2
  b. Splitting of S2
  c. Loud S1
  d. Splitting of S1

36. Hypertension will usually cause the following heart sound:
  a. Loud S2

  b. Splitting of S2
  c. Loud S1
  d. Splitting of S1

37. Describing where the sound was heard in the cardiac cycle is called:
  a. Pitch
  b. Loudness of volume

  c. Timing
  d. Splitting
38. If the intensity of the heart murmur begins softly and becomes louder, it is:
  a. Medium

  b. Decrescendo

  c. Holosystolic

  d. Crescendo

39. Narrative charting of your cardiovascular assessment is also called:
  a. long form
  b. problem form
  c. story form
  d. short form

40. Tachycardia can be caused by increased stimulation of sympathetic nervous system. ________ can cause this.
  a. watching television of eating dinner
  b. resting in bed

  c. fear or fever
  d. walking downstairs or listening to music
41. Usually, the first drug used to treat PVC’s is
  a. Atropine
  b. Bretylium
  c. Lidocaine
  d. Isuprel
42. The most common symptom of acute peripheral arterial disease is:
  a. Spasms
  b. Occlusion
  c. Pain
  d. Pallor
  e. Tingling
43. In chronic peripheral arterial disease, numbness of the extremity get worse:
  a. After resting
  b. Upon eating
  c. Upon exercise
  d. At night

44. The usual cause of peripheral venous disease is likely to be:
  a. Strain at work
  b. Increased venous pressure
  c. Poor nutrition
45. One of the major indicators of the presence of peripheral venus disease is:
  a. Pain in the area
  b. Increased blood pressure
  c. Edema

46. With cocaine use, the initial response of the cardiovascular system is:
  a. Irregular pulse
  b. Slowed pulse rate
  c. Dilated arteries.