Perinatal Assessment

~ Exam ~

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You must correctly answer 33 of 47 questions. If needed, you may retake the exam. Please complete the evaluation form that will appear on your screen after passing the exam.

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This test has 47 questions.

All questions must be answered before the test can be graded.

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1. Eclampsia is defined as hypertension, edema, proteinuria prior to the 20th week of gestation

  a. True
  b. False
2. In mild preeclampsia, the systolic blood pressure is 150

  a. True
  b. False
3. At the 12th week of gestation, Fetal Heart Tones can be heard with the fetoscope.

  a. True
  b. False
4. At birth, the average infant is about 20 inches in length and weighs about 7 pounds.

  a. True
  b. False
5. Lactose present in the urine means that diabetes is present.
  a. True
  b. False
6. A urinary tract infection might cause symptoms of discoloration of the urine and preteinuria.

  a. True
  b. False
7. Rh determination is performed during the prenatal period only if the woman is blood type Rh negative.

  a. True
  b. False
8. Antibody screening is not necessary if this is the first pregnancy for the client.

  a. True
  b. False
9. All but one of the following are routine tests for all clients at the first prenatal visit. Which one is not?
  a. CBC
  b. sickle cell screen
  c. urinalysis
  d. hypertension screening
  e. hemoglobin
10. At birth, the umbilical vein becomes the:
  a. broad ligament
  b. round ligament
  c. obliterates completely
  d. ductus ligament
11. The hormone Estriol is excreted:
  a. 10th month of pregnancy
  b. 1st month of pregnancy
  c. in non-pregnant women
  d. throughout pregnancy

12. Another name for the oxytocin challenge test is called the:
  a. hormone monitoring test
  b. quickening test
  c. stress monitoring
  d. serological test

13. During pregnancy, the client’s cardiac output may rise as much as:
  a. 10%
  b. 20%
  c. 40%
  d. 50%
  e. none of these
14. A warning sign/symptom of mild preeclampsia is:
  a. low hemoglobin
  b. polyuria
  c. decreased WBC’s
  d. increased proteinuria

15. Which of the following are most prone to preeclampsia? (more than one answer)
  a. woman over 35
  b. diabetic client
  c. Rh negative women
  d. all obese women
  e. a and b
16. The first 24 hours of life is the transitional period
  a. True
  b. False
17. assessment begins with a detailed history of the mother.
  a. True
  b. False
18. In about four hours after birth, the infant’s glucose should be about 90 mg/100ml.

  a. True
  b. False
19. At about 40 weeks of gestation, the average infant weight-length ratio is about 2.60 (from chart).

  a. True
  b. False
20. Rubella contracted in the first trimester, is the most dangerous for the fetus.

  a. True
  b. False
21. Tobacco smoke effects are seen only in the newborn infant.
  a. True
  b. False
22. The mother took contraceptives and became pregnant, there is no greater risk for the pregnancy.
  a. True
  b. False
23. Infants with facial nerve paralysis may need assistance during their feeding.
  a. True
  b. False
24. A fractured clavicle is one of the most common injury that occurs during delivery.
  a. True
  b. False
25. The presence of a torch infection always means that an inflammation will also be present.
  a. True
  b. False
26. Which is performed within the first 5 hours of life?
  a. head circumference
  b. respirations
  c. complete neuro exam

  d. readiness for feeding

  e. all of the above
27. Which is performed in the first minute of life?
  a. head circumference
  b. respirations
  c. readiness for feeding
  d. b and c
  e. all of the above
28. Which is performed only once in the first 24 hours
  a. head circumference
  b. respirations
  c. complete neuro exam

  d. a and c
  e. all of the above
29. Which is performed only once in the first 6 hours
  a. head circumference
  b. respirations
  c. complete neuro exam

  d. readiness for feeding

  e. all of the above

30. Which is performed immediately and in first 24 hours?
  a. head circumference
  b. respirations
  c. complete neuro exam

  d. readiness for feeding

  e. all of the above
31. Which is a non-life-threatening anomaly?
  a. aortic stenosis
  b. meningocele
  c. intestinal atresia
  d. neural tube malformation
  e. cleft lip
32. Symptoms of toxoplasmosis in infected infants usually occur by:
  a. at birth
  b. one year after birth
  c. in adulthood
  d. immediately after birth
  e. none of these
33. A disease transmitted to the infant, having very few adverse effects, but leaves the infant a carrier is:
  a. toxoplasmosis
  b. rubella
  c. cytomegalovirus
  d. hepatitis B
  e. none of these
34. If infant is delivered vaginally with open herpes sores present, the infant will have:

  a. a 30-50% infection rate
  b. toxoplasmosis
  c. a CMV infection
  d. no consequences
35. During the initial reactivity period, the heart rate:
  a. stays at 150 bpm
  b. stays below 150 bpm
  c. fluctuates up and down
  d. remains stable
  e. none of these
36. Which condition may develop if newborn’s temperature falls too low?

  a. tachycardia
  b. tachypnea
  c. hypoxia
  d. hypercholesterolemia
37. The most important too used in treatment of congenital defects is:
  a. temperature regulation
  b. surgery
  c. heart bypass
  d. early diagnosis
38. Which condition appears only after a few hours
  a. caput
  b. succedaneum
39. Which condition exhibits as diffuse swelling
  a. caput
  b. succedaneum
40. Which condition exhibits as pitting upon pressure
  a. caput
  b. succedaneum
41. Which condition exhibits as fixed to one side cephalhematoma
  a. caput
  b. succedaneum
42. Which condition exhibits as sharply circumscribed
  a. caput
  b. succedaneum

43. Which is 40 weeks and 53 cm length
  a. IGA infant

  b. AGA infant
  c. SGA infant
44. Which is 40 weeks and 33 cm head
  a. IGA infant

  b. AGA infant
  c. SGA infant
45. Which is 42 weeks and 35 cm head
  a. IGA infant

  b. AGA infant
  c. SGA infant
46. Which is 37 weeks and 3.2 ratio
  a. IGA infant

  b. AGA infant
  c. SGA infant
47. Which is 42 weeks and 2.2 ratio
  a. IGA infant

  b. AGA infant
  c. SGA infant