Laboratory Tests Interpretation

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1. A diagnostic test is any inquire into a _______________ condition.
  a. Laboratory
  b. Pathological
  c. Viral

  d. Bacterial

  e. Benign

2. In this text, we will use “diagnostic test” to refer to the ____________ studies involving more than just analyzing blood.
  a. More sophisticated
  b. Physical assessment

  c. Clinical

  d. Viral

3. The nurse should always keep in mind that normal values should be considered only as _____________ of what is normal or abnormal.

  a. Guidelines
  b. Borderline
  c. Confirmation

  d. Theoretical

4. Based on the statistical definition of normal, _____________ of independent test results will be outside this normal range (of test results).
  a. 5%
  b. 12%

  c. 20%

  d. 25%

  e. 50%

5. Special notations should be made on the lab request form such as ___________.

  a. Time

  b. IV infusion
  c. Source
  d. Relations to meals

  e. A, B, C, D

6. ____________ may occur due to prolonged tourniquet constriction.
  a. Hemodilution

  b. Hemoconcentration

  c. Hemostasis

7. The quantity of the sample usually dictates the method of ___________.
  a. Evaluation
  b. Collection

  c. Reporting results

  d. Normal value

8. Avoid drawing blood in an extremity used for infusing ________________.
  a. Glucose
  b. NaCl

  c. IV fluids

  d. Blood

  e. Medications

9. After 20 minutes of strenuous exercise, serum __________ is decreased by about 8%.
  a. Albumin
  b. Sodium

  c. Potassium

  d. ALT

  e. SGPT

10. This lab test may be affected by patient posture:
  a. Sodium
  b. Potassium

  c. Cholesterol

  d. SGOT

  e. SGPT

11. Fetal Hb, HbF, constitutes ________________ of Hb in a newborn.
  a. 5%
  b. 25%

  c. 2-03-%

  d. 50 – 90%

  e. None of these

12. This test is used to detect normal and abnormal types of hemoglobin:

  a. HF
  b. HB trait
  c. HB-HCT

  d. Hb electrophoresis

13. This test is the volume of the average RBC:

  a. MCH

  b. MCV

  c. MCHC

  d. MCHV

  e. Retic
14. MCHC can be useful for the diagnosis of conditions which are not dependent upon the number of ________.
  a. Retics
  b. RBC's

  c. Platelets
  d. WBC’s

  e. Neutrophils

15. The sickle cell test, also called _______, is used to detect sickle cells.
  a. Hb S

  b. HCT

  c. TIBC

  d. Sic T

  e. HB T

16. Increased serum Ferritin levels may indicate acute ______ disease.

  a. Hepatic

  b. Anemia
  c. Sickle cell

  d. Cardiac

  e. Viral

17. The blood sample for the ESR test must be examined within __________.
  a. 2 hours
  b. 12 hours
  c. 24 hours
  d. 48 hours

  e. 72 hours
18. This is a lab test that counts actual numbers of different types of WBC’s:
  a. HCT

  b. MCV

  c. MCHC
  d. Retic count
  e. Diff

19. In order to interpret the WBC and differential, the nurse must consider the relative and the _____ values of the differential.

  a. Normal
  b. Ionic
  c. Pathological
  d. Absolute

  e. Interpreted

20. Basophils are increased by:
  a. Ulcerative colitis
  b. Trauma
  c. Pregnancy
  d. Hepatitis
  e. SLE
21. Monocytes are increased by:
  a. Herpes
  b. Lymphomas
  c. Stress
  d. Shock

  e. Burns
22. Fibrinogen plus factor B, plus Thrombin yields:
  a. Prothrombin

  b. Thromoplastin
  c. A clot
  d. A platelet

23. Many medications will decrease platelet count, these are:
  a. Antimony/gold salts
  b. Isoniazid
  c. Thiazide
  d. Sulfonamides/methyldopa
  e. All of these
24. The PTT will usually detect deficiencies in all clotting factors except:

  a. Factor 4
  b. Factors 6 & 7
  c. Factor 8

  d. Factors 7 & 8

  e. None of these
25. The _________ test has the ability to exactly pinpoint the defect in clotting.
  a. TGT
  b. PTT

  c. PT
  d. Bleeding Time
  e. Pro Time

26. Enzymes are proteins in the body and they act as __________.
  a. Buffers
  b. Catalysts
  c. Proteins
  d. Isoenzymes
  e. Antibiotics

27. The main cardiac enzymes are CPK, LDH, and _________________.
  a. PTT
  b. AAS
  c. SGOT
  d. SGPT

  e. None of these

28. Isoenzymes of LDH that appear primarily in the heart are LD1 and:
  a. LDH-3
  b. LD4
  c. LD5

  d. LD-4
  e. LD2

29. Narcotic drugs and ______________ can elevate serum LDH (and other enzyme) levels.
  a. Antibiotics
  b. IV infusions
  c. Stress
  d. IM injections

30. The ingestion of alcohol and _________ could also cause (enzyme) elevations.
  a. Trauma
  b. Antibiotics
  c. Food
  d. Vitamins

31. The Myoglobin test is often used to help ___ results of cardiac enzyme tests.
  a. Report
  b. Confirm

  c. Obtain

  d. Determine
32. ______ is the major cation in the extracellular fluid in the body.
  a. Potassium
  b. Chloride

  c. Sodium
  d. Acid phosphatase

33. Cardiac arrhythmias and _______ disturbances are seen with high or low levels of potassium electrolyte.
  a. Muscle

  b. Renal
  c. GI

  d. Vascular

  e. Neurological

34. Increased serum osmolality is associated with __________.
  a. Overhydration
  b. Excessive fluid intake

  c. Hypoglycemia

  d. Dehydration
35. Plasma ammonia levels may help indicate the severity of _____________ damage.
  a. Hepatocellular
  b. Kidney

  c. Hepatosplenic
  d. Messenteric

36. _______ levels are directly related to glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, this test will be used to assess renal damage.
  a. Creatine
  b. Creatinine

  c. Ammonia
  d. AST
  e. ESP
37. Comparison test performed on whole blood in order to ensure compatibility of transfused blood:
  a. Rh Compatibility
  b. Crossmatch

  c. Blood typing

  d. RBC count

38. Turbidity and other terms are used to characterize the ______ of urine.
  a. Acidity
  b. Odor
  c. Appearance
  d. Color

  e. Specific gravity

39. ________________ amount of protein should be excreted into the urine in 24-hour period.

  a. Very large

  b. Large
  c. Moderate

  d. Very small

40. _________ are solid, formed elements which appear in the urine, secondary to some other type of cell destruction.
  a. Casts
  b. Veriforms

  c. Cells

  d. Membranes
  e. Mucus

41. (Urinary) calculi commonly form in the ___________ and pass into the ureter.
  a. Bladder

  b. Urethra

  c. Ureter
  d. Bloodstream

  e. Kidney

42. Normal CSF fluid pressure is _________________ mm H20.
  a. 10-20

  b. 40-80

  c. 80-100

  d. 100-200

  e. 200-250

43. The main pathologies occur when the CSF glucose is ________ than normal.
  a. Much higher

  b. Moderately higher

  c. Lower
  d. None of these

44. Some disorders which can cause an increase in (CSF) protein, can also cause an increase in the __________ as well.
  a. RBC count
  b. WBC count

  c. Platelets
  d. Hb S

  e. Hb F

45. Many times when the blood serology test is negative, the CSF test is positive; an example of this is:
  a. Tertiary syphilis

  b. HIV infection

  c. AIDS

  d. Early syphilis

46. Low (CSF) soluble amyloid beta protein precursor levels correlate with:
  a. AIDS
  b. Syphilis
  c. Diabetes
  d. Cancer

  e. Alzheimer’s disease

47. The indirect bilirubin is _______ accurate than the direct bilirubin test.
  a. Less

  b. More

  c. Much less

  d. None of these

48. The SGPT enzyme test is used to help diagnose an MI, but the highest levels of this enzyme are seen in ______ disease.
  a. Kidney

  b. Splenic

  c. Liver

  d. Infectious

  e. HIV

49. Which is the stronger of the thyroid hormones?
  a. T3

  b. T2

  c. T4

  d. Thyrotoxin

  e. Levotoxin

50. In the blood, iodine is not a free molecule, but rather it is bound to:

  a. Glucose

  b. Protein
  c. RBC’s

  d. WBC's

  e. Hemoglobin

51. A low concentration of PBI in blood, indicates:
  a. Infection
  b. Hypothyroidism

  c. Hyperthyroidism

  d. Anemia

52. Prior to AML test, be sure to withhold drugs that elevate results, such as:
  a. Tylenol

  b. Vitamins

  c. Aspirin

  d. Thyroid drugs

53. High lipase levels suggest pancreatic duct obstruction or acute:
  a. Hepatitis

  b. Infection

  c. Pancreatitis

  d. None of these

54. Most standard tests for syphilis depend upon the syphilis antibody:
  a. Agglutinin

  b. Opsonins

  c. HIV antibody

  d. Kline

  e. Reagin

55. This is the most specific test for syphilis.
  a. VDRL

  b. TPCF

  c. Kolmer test

  d. Kline test

  e. Kahn test

56. The Compliment-Fixation test is used to help diagnose mycotic infections and:
  a. Rickettsial infections

  b. Viral infections

  c. Malignancies

57. The CRPA test is used to help diagnose the MI and:
  a. HIV

  b. All viruses

  c. Mononucleosis

  d. Rheumatoid arthritis

58. Prior informed consent (for HIV testing) is usually not needed for:
  a. Anonymous testing

  b. Military personnel

  c. Prisoners

  d. All of these

59. Some (HIV) testing sites give a repeat ELISA test or they may be given the:
  a. Agglutination

  b. Kline

  c. Western Blot

  d. All of these

60. The Viral Load test measures the __________ of HIV virus in the blood.
  a. Strength

  b. Amount

  c. Susceptibility

  d. Virulence

61. The blood for a viral load test should not be drawn within 4 weeks of a (an):
  a. HIV test
  b. Lipase test
  c. Flocculation test
  d. Immunization
62. The T-cells called: T-4 cells and also called CD4+ cells, are also called:
  a. Suppressor cells
  b. Infection cells
  c. Helper cells

63. The T-cell value bounces around a lot; _______ can affect the test results.
  a. Aspirin

  b. Antibiotics
  c. Stress
  d. Meals

  e. None of these
64. When CD4+ count goes below _____________ most doctors begin antiviral drugs.
  a. 500
  b. 750
  c. 1,000

  d. 5,000

  e. 10,000

65. The ABG analysis is mainly used to evaluate __________ in the lungs.
  a. Gas exchange

  b. pH
  c. Hypoxemia

  d. Acidosis

66. _____ is the term which refers to the condition of excessive bicarbonate ions.
  a. Hyperkalemia
  b. Alkalemia
  c. Hypokalemia

  d. Hypoxemia

67. Normal (arterial) blood pH is:
  a. 7.00
  b. 7.40
  c. 7.55
  d. 7.80
  e. 7.005

68. Hyperventilation causes the body to exhale, and “get rid of” ____ from the blood, through the lungs.
  a. Fluids
  b. O2
  c. RBC’s
  d. Carbon ions

  e. CO2

69. Respiratory alkalosis can be reversed by merely stopping the ___________.
  a. IV infusion
  b. Stress
  c. Hypoventilation

  d. Hyperventilation

70. Respiratory acidosis might be caused by:
  a. Hyperventilation
  b. CNS stimulation
  c. Anxiety

  d. CNS depression

71. Metabolic Alkalosis can be caused by:
  a. Steroid therapy

  b. Nausea

  c. Renal failure

  d. Shock

72. The normal PO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) is _______________:
  a. 25-50
  b. 80-100

  c. 90-120

  d. 75

  e. None of these

73. The SO2 value (oxygen saturation of the blood) is defined as the extent to which oxygen saturates the _______________.
  a. Hemoglobin
  b. WBC’s

  c. RBC's
  d. Cells of the body

74. A patient is hyperventilating causing alkalosis; the kidneys respond by:
  a. Conserving HCO3; thus restoring p t normal
  b. Excreting HCO3; thus restoring pH to normal
75. Since the body’s own defense mechanism (in compensation) will last just a short time, the nurse must look for and accurately report _____________.
  a. Results

  b. Comments
  c. ABG’s
  d. pH
  e. Symptoms

76. Histology is the study of the microscopic structure of tissues and ___________.
  a. Blood

  b. Tumors

  c. Cells

  d. Biopsies

77. Frozen sections may provide results in 10-15 minutes, however, they are not:
  a. Large enough
  b. Standardized

  c. Consistent

  d. Reliable

78. Tissue scraping is a type of ____________ test.
  a. Blood
  b. Biopsy

  c. Histological
  d. Cytological

  e. None of these

79. Cell-washing is performed by instilling a solution into:
  a. Bronchial tree
  b. Esophagus
  c. Stomach
  d. All of these
80. Sterotactic breast biopsy immobilizes the breast and allows the computer to calculate the exact ________ of the mass.
  a. Location
  b. Size

  c. Make-up
  d. Contents

  e. All of these

81. After the ultrasound-guided core biopsy, the nurse should apply pressure for:
  a. 10 minutes
  b. 20 minutes
  c. 30 minutes
  d. No pressure needed
82. Closed (lung biopsy) technique is performed under ______________ anesthesia.

  a. Twilight

  b. Local and then general

  c. General

  d. Local

83. Open (lung biopsy) technique is performed under _________ anesthesia.
  a. Twilight

  b. Local and then general

  c. General

  d. Local

84. Lymph node biopsy is the surgical excision of a (an) ______lymph node.
  a. Deep

  b. Active

  c. Superficial
  d. Enlarged

  e. None of these

85. Lymphatic cancer accounts for up to ______ of all cancers.
  a. 1 %

  b. 5%

  c. 15%

  d. 50%

86. Today, he is referred to as the “father” of modern cytology:
  a. Dr. Lister

  b. Dr. Cyto

  c. Dr. Papanicolaou
  d. Dr. Spock

87. The Pap Smear is known as a ______ test for cervical cancer.

  a. Tissue

  b. Cytological

  c. Biopsy

  d. Surgical

  e. None of these

88. The RAIU test measures the amount of ____ that accumulates in the thyroid.

  a. Blood

  b. Ions
  c. T3

  d. Iodine 123

  e. All of these

89. Some facilities may perform another test at the same time (as RaAIU) this is:

  a. Thyroid scan

  b. T3

  c. T4

  d. Hb T

  e. None of these

90. The following factors may increase iodine uptake (RAIU): phenothiazines and:

  a. Age

  b. Hydration

  c. Iodine-deficient diet

  d. Stress

91. The gallium scan is a ____________ scan used to assess certain neoplasms.

  a. Total-body

  b. Localized

  c. Organ

  d. Radioactive iodine

92. Angiography is an invasive procedure and carries risks similar to those of the __________ patient.
  a. Infectious
  b. Elderly

  c. Pediatric

  d. Medical

  e. Surgical

93. With coronary arteriography, dye is injected directly into the coronary arteries; with angiocardiography, the dye is injected into the ____________.
  a. Heart

  b. Coronary vessels

  c. Pulmonary vessels

  d. All of these

94. One of the (rare but serious) complications of cardiac catheterization is:
  a. Shock

  b. Abdominal aneurism

  c. MI

  d. Pneumothorax

95. After the cardiac catheterization, nursing implications include:
  a. Peripheral pulses below insertion site.
  b. Bedrest for 2 hours

  c. Blood Pressure Q2h

  d. NPO for 12 hours

96. Gastric analysis is accomplished by a __________ inserted into the stomach.
  a. Blakemore tube

  b. Nasogastric tube

  c. Linton tube

97. Observe for any adverse reactions to the gastric stimulants (if administered for gastric analysis), such as dizziness, flushing, or ____________.

  a. Nausea

  b. Headache

  c. Vomiting

  d. Leg pain

  e. Hypertension

98. Expiratory reserve volume is the _________ amount of air that can be exhaled after normal breathing.
  a. Normal

  b. Minimum

  c. Maximal

  d. None of these

99. Prior to PT’s, the nurse should note and record which of the following:
  a. Last IPPB

  b. Oral bronchodilators used

  c. Dyspnea

  d. All of these

100. The uses for the stress/exercise test include screening for:
  a. Coronary artery disease

  b. GI disorders

  c. Infectious diseases