Diabetes: Cause, Effect, and Treatment

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Chapter I


1. The incidence of diabetes is high. There are more than _________ new cases diagnosed each year.

  a. 70,000

  b. 700,000

  c. 16,000

  d. 160,000


2. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas. In diabetes, the pancreas either produces:

  a. no insulin

  b. too little insulin

  c. the body does not respond to insulin

  d. all


3. Insulin is produced in which islet cells?

  a. beta cells

  b. alpha cells

  c. PP cells


4. Factors that increase the risk of diabetes include:

  a. obesity

  b. faulty immune system

  c. age

  d. all


Chapter II


5. In Type I diabetes:

  a. the body does not produce insulin

  b. not enough insulin is produced


6. In Type I diabetes, the onset can be described as:

  a. sudden

  b. insidious


7. Type I diabetes symptoms are caused by:

  a. hyperglycemia

  b. breakdown of body fats

  c. absence of insulin

  d. all


8. Factors that increase the risk of DKA include:

  a. failure to take insulin

  b. infection

  c. resistance to endogenous insulin

  d. all


9. In Type 2 diabetes:

  a. insulin is not produced

  b. not enough insulin is produced to transport glucose


10. Warning signs of Type 2 diabetes include:

  a. sudden onset

  b. weight loss

  c. polydipsia

  d. all

  e. none of the above


11. Patients with ________ will have blood sugars greater than 900 mg/100ml.

  a. HHNC

  b. DKA


12. Patients in _________ have sufficient circulating insulin to retard the release of fatty acids.

  a. HHNC

  b. DKA


13. Symptom of hypoglycemia include:

  a. Kussmaul respirations

  b. onset hrs. to days

  c. negative for glucose


14. The prevalence of Type 2 diabetes is:

  a. 85-95 %

  b. ½ of all cases

  c. 10-20 %


Chapter III


15. The normal range for fasting blood glucose is:

  a. less than 140 mg/dl

  b. 70-110 mg/dl

  c. 60-90 mg/dl


16. In a normal individual, after ingestion of glucose, the plasma glucose level returns to baseline within:

  a. 2 hours

  b. 4 hours

  c. 6 hours


17. The oral GTT begins with the patient in a fasting state for:

  a. 24 hours

  b. between 10-16 hours

  c. a fasting state is not necessary


18. The most sensitive test of carbohydrate tolerance is:

  a. OGTT

  b. FPG

  c. cortisone GTT


19. The test that measures average blood levels over the past 2 to 3 months is called:

  a. SMBG

  b. hemoglobin A1c


20. _______ measures precisely the effects of changes in diet, exercise, and insulin dosage as they relate to blood glucose levels.

  a. SMBG

  b. hemoglobin A1c

  c. RBS


21. Testing for ketones in the urine is appropriate for _________ diabetics.

  a. Type I

  b. Type 2


Chapter IV


22. Premixed insulin is a combination of specific proportions of:

  a. short acting and intermediate insulin

  b. short acting and long acting insulin


23. _______ should be clear and colorless.

  a. Semi-Lente insulin

  b. Regular insulin

  c. NPH insulin


24. _______ is used to lower blood sugar quickly when immediate action is needed.

  a. Regular insulin

  b. NPH insulin

  c. Lispro


25. When mixing two different insulins in one syringe, _________ is drawn into the syringe first.

  a. NPH

  b. Regular

  c. Lente

  d. Lispro


26. Insulin absorption can be affected by:

  a. environmental temperatures

  b. depth of injection

  c. exercise

  d. all


27. An insulin reaction is the body’s response to:

  a. low blood sugar

  b. high blood sugar


28. Oral antidiabetic agents are used in the treatment of:

  a. Type I diabetes

  b. Type 2 diabetes


29. _________ help put more insulin into the blood stream.

  a. Sulfonylureas

  b. Alpha-glucosidase

  c. Biguanides


30. Treatment with ________ can only be effective in patients with reserve beta cell function.

  a. Sulfonylureas

  b. Alpha-glucosidase

  c. Biguanides


31. The average weight gain for patients on sulfonylureas is:

  a. 2-3 pounds

  b. no weight gain

  c. 10 to 15 pounds


32. Prandin is most effective when taken:

  a. 30 minutes before meals

  b. 30 minutes after meals

  c. during meals


33. Lactic acidosis is a side effect of which drug:

  a. Prandin

  b. Metformin

  c. Precose


34. Symptoms of lactic acidosis include all except:

  a. malaise

  b. nausea

  c. shortness of breath

  d. weakness


35. _______ decreases the production of glucose by the liver.

  a. Alpha-glucosidase

  b. Biguanide

  c. TZDs


36. _______ interferes with the absorption of glucose.

  a. TZDs

  b. Alpha-glucosidase

  c. Sulfonylureas


37. Indicate which statement is correct.

  a. Acarbose decreases digestion of carbohydrates

  b. Acarbose increases digestion of carbohydrates


38. __________ reduces the body’s resistance to insulin.

  a. Biguanide

  b. TZDs

  c. Sulfonylureas


Chapter V


39. No more than _______ of calories should come from fat .

  a. 50%

  b. 20%

  c. 30 %

  d. 10%


40. It is better for the diabetic to:

  a. space meals throughout the day

  b. eat two main meals per day


41. Saturated fat can be defined as:

  a. vegetable fat that lowers cholesterol

  b. animal fat that raises blood cholesterol


42. Low-density lipoprotein:

  a. protects against heart disease

  b. deposits on artery walls, increases heart disease


43. One serving of starch, fruit, or milk contains _______ grams of carbohydrates.

  a. 30

  b. 10

  c. 15

  d. 25


44. Approximately ________ of the total number of calories consumed should come from protein.

  a. 10%

  b. 30%

  c. 20%

  d. 50 %


45. One pound of fat is equal to ________ calories.

  a. 3500 calories

  b. 500 calories

  c. 2500

  d. 2000


Chapter VI


46. ______ of all diabetic admissions are the result of foot problems.

  a. 50%

  b. 10%

  c. 30%

  d. 20%


47. A sign of neuropathy in the early stages includes:

  a. loss of sensation in lower limbs

  b. burning pain on the bottom of the feet


48. Charcot arthropathies are micro-fractures in the feet resulting from:

  a. loss of sensation

  b. deformities of the feet

  c. hyper-sensation of the feet


49. Wounds on the medial aspect of the foot are caused by:

  a. repetitive moderate pressure

  b. constant low pressure


50. Signs of PVD include all except:

  a. alleviation of pain with elevation of limb

  b. atrophic shiny skin

  c. non-palpable pedal pulse

  d. pallor on elevation of limbs


Chapter VII


51. Loss of motor fibers cause muscle weakness. Diabetic amyotrophy is centered in the:

  a. pelvic girdle and thigh muscles

  b. lumbar region

  c. lower legs and feet


52. _____ is the most frequently diagnosed type of neuropathy.

  a. femoral neuropathy

  b. distal neuropathy


53. Gastroparesis affects the stomach, and is what type of neuropathy?

  a. motor neuropathy

  b. sensory neuropathy

  c. autonomic neuropathy


54. Bladder neuropathy is treated with:

  a. Mexitil

  b. Elavil

  c. Urecholine


55. Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of:

  a. motor neuropathy

  b. compression mononeuropathy

  c. autonomic neuropathy


56. Thoracic or lumbar radiculopathy occurs most often in people with:

  a. Type I diabetes

  b. Type 2 diabetes


57. Background retinopathy affects approximately ______ of long-term diabetics.

  a. 90-95%

  b. 10-15%

  c. 40-50%


58. The ______ is responsible for central vision and color vision.

  a. macula

  b. lens

  c. vitreous


59. If macular edema is suspected, the physician may order:

  a. vitrectomy

  b. fluorescein angiography

  c. tonometry


60. Laser treatment is used for :

  a. glaucoma

  b. cataracts

  c. macular edema


61. People with diabetes are _____ more likely to develop ESRD than non-diabetics.

  a. 20 times

  b. 10 times

  c. 30 times


62. Peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis, occurs if:

  a. the opening in the skin near the catheter becomes infected

  b. the catheter bag is connected or disconnected incorrectly

  c. A and B

  d. neither A or B.


63. There are three different types of peritoneal dialysis available. Which is the most common?

  a. CAPD

  b. CCPD

  c. IPD


64. The new kidney is placed:

  a. in the lower back

  b. between the thigh and upper abd

  c. in the lower abd.


65. Immunosuppressant drugs are given to help prevent rejection. These drugs are taken:

  a. only until the new kidneys start working

  b. for the rest of the patient’s life

  c. for one year after implantation


Chapter VIII


66. If the child has gym or a sports activity, the child should have as a snack:

  a. a fast acting-sugar

  b. carbohydrate and protein

  c. nothing extra if the child feels well


67. The written plan should be updated:

  a. only as needed

  b. every year

  c. as needed during the year and every new school year


Chapter IX


68. The diabetic patient must understand many different aspects of the disease. Which statement is false?

  a. Diabetes care requires a daily effort to follow a diet, stay active, and take medication.

  b. Depression can be a very debilitating emotion.

  c. It is possible to achieve perfect glycemic control.

  d. A newly diagnosed diabetic may feel confused and overwhelmed.